Medical Student Cheater: Practice Tests: Cytology 2

Monday, August 22, 2011

Practice Tests: Cytology 2

1. Cells that predominate dense regular connective tissue
  • Macrophages
  • Fibroblast
  • Mast Cell
  • Trophoblast
2. During calcification of cartilage, Calcium is deposited in the
  • Perichondrium
  • Lacuna
  • Matrix
  • Chindrocyte cytoplasm
3. Which is the most important factor for stimulation of erythropoiesis by bone marrow
  • tissue hypoxia
  • Acute Blood loss
  • Low supply of iron
  • Low oxygen tension in alveolar spaces


 4. What step signifies the calcification of bone
  • proliferation of chondrocytes
  • hypertrophy
  • vascularization
  • degeneration of lacuna


5. What is the primary step in initiation of myosin-actin sliding mechanism?
  • release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • attachment of myosin head to actin

6. All of the following are parts of the PNS, except:
  • basal ganglia
  • sensory ganglion
  • brachial plexus
  • peripheral nerve
7. Major difference of active chondrocytes of hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage
  • size of nucleus
  • # of mitochondria
  • structure of golgi complex
  • None of the Above


 8. A reticulocyte is
  • a young erythroblast with chromatid fragments
  • a mature normoblast with pyknotic nucleus
  • capable of replication for it still contains DNA
  • found in the bone marrow


9. Brown adipose tissue in the newborn is specifically located at
  • cheeks
  • buttocks
  • abdominal wall
  • axillae


 10. Heparan sulfate is glycosaminoglycan present in:
  • elastic cartilage
  • umbilical cord
  • epithelial basal lamina
  • cancellous bone


11. Which of the ff is not a characteristic of skeletal muscle
  • alternating light and dark band in light microscopy
  • 1-30 cm fibers
  • branching
12. Wharton’s jelly consist of
  • Reticular tissue
  • Mesenchymal tissue
  • Mucous tissue
  • Brown adipose tissue 


13. Characteristic T-tubules of cardiac muscle
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum well developed
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum not well developed
  • presence of cisternae
  • presence of triad


 14. Characteristic of Soma, except:
  • globular and compact
  • produces lots of ATP
  • has Nissl bodies… has DNA
  • secretory


 15. Intermediate sized phagocytic cells
  • Neutrophil
  • Monocyte
  • Macrophage
  • Lymphocyte
16. Which cells did not came from pluripotent stem cells?
  • erythrocytes
  • megakaryocytes
  • plasma cells
  • None of the Above


 17. Stereocilia are present in the epithelium of
  • epididymis
  • cochlea
  • T. tube
  • Appendix


 18. The time for the primary ossification of bones
  • 3 months
  • 5 months
  • 7 months
  • 9 months


 19. The dorsal root ganglia is considered to be what type of neuron
  • unipolar
  • dipolar
  • multipolar
  • pseudopolar


 20. The ff is a component of lamina lucida of basal lamina
  • heparin sulfate
  • fibronectin
  • keratin
  • laminin


 21. By the age of 25, which bone would have bone marrow that could produce blood cells
  • ribs
  • frontal bone
  • femur
  • iliac crest


 22. Which is not a function of astrocyte?
  • produce myelin
  • reservoir for potassium
  • basis for blood-brain-barrier
  • separates neurons from each other


 23. Feature of activated/active fibroblast
  • more acidophilic cytoplasm
  • actin and myosin filament
24. Desmosomes is also known as
  • zona occludens
  • zona adherens
  • macula adherens
25. What muscle filament has its one end attached to the Z line?
  • myosin
  • actin
  • tropomyosin
  • troponin
 26. Bones developed in/ by intramembranous ossification has what characteristics?
  • Distinct Harvesian system
  • No periosteum
  • Osteocytes in lacunae
  • All of the Above


 27. Enzyme responsible for collagen meshwork
  • Lyase
  • Ligase
  • Hydrolase
  • Isomerase


 28. The precursor cell of bone marrow plasma cell is the
  • Megakaryocyte
  • Myeloblast
  • Histiocyte
  • Lymphocyte


 29. The perichondrium is presnt in
  • Hyaline cartilage
  • Fibrocartilage
  • Both
  • Neither


 30. Which structure is compound saccular
  • Parotid
  • Prostate
  • Sebaceous
  • None of the Above


 31. Which connective tissue covers the muscle fiber
  • perimysium
  • periosteum
  • endomysium


 32. What is the acquired enhanced phagocytic and antigen processing activity in response to a local stimulus
  • Elicited macrophage
  • Triggered macrophage
  • Resident macrophage


 33. This structure is only unique in skeletal muscle
  • dense bodies
  • desmosomes
  • intercalated discs
  • T-tubules


 34. Features of cell of steroid-secreting endocrine gland
  • very extensive smooth ER
  • small golgi complex
  • many free ribosomes
  • All of the Above


 35. Basic contractile unit of skeletal and cardiac muscles
  • Fascicles
  • Myofibril
  • sarcomere


 36. Osteocyte comm. is established through filopodial processes located in the
  • Haversial canal
  • Canaliculi
  • Medullary cavity
  • Volkman’s canal


 37. Site of tropocollagen synthesis
  • nucleolus
  • extra-cellular
  • Golgi
  • RER


 38. Osteoprotegerm
  • induces osteoclast formation
  • stimulates osteoclast activity
  • suppress osteoclast differentiation
  • no effect


 39. Primitive remnants of lamellar fragments is bones of adult
  • outer lamellae
  • inner lamellae
  • interstitial lamellae
  • concentric lamellae


 40. Cytokines that activates and inhibits fibroblast activity
  • interleukin
  • interferon
41. Ciliated stratified columnar epithelium can be found in
  • glomerulus
  • fetal esophagus
42. Structure with fibrocartilage
  • nose
  • epiglottis
  • tracheal rings
  • pubis symphysis


 43. What cells are responsible for production of myelin with peripheral nerves
  • oligodendrocytes
  • schwann cells
  • astrocytes
  • microglia


 44. The lining epithelium of the jejunum
  • ciliated simple columnar
  • pseudostratified ciliated columnar
  • simple columnar with brush border
  • stratified squamous non-keratinized


 45. All of the following are derived from ectoderm except
  • neurons
  • astrocytes
  • meninges
  • epidermis


 46. Closure of the neural groove and start of the formation of a neural tube begins on what stage of embryo
  • 20 days
  • gastrula
  • 33 somite
  • blastula


 47. Synthesis of hemoglobin begins in the
  • CFU
  • Proerythroblast
  • Erythroblast
  • Megaloblast


 48. Smooth muscle contraction
  • rapid forceful and coordinated
  • quick and forceful
  • vigorous and rhythmic
  • slow and prolonged


 49. Pseudociliated stratified columnar cells
  • stomach
  • urethra
  • trachea
50. An example of dense regular connective tissue
  • dermis
  • tendon
  • periosteum
  • omentum


 51. Proteoglycan that attaches to the matrix of chondreoblasts / chondreocytes
  • chondronectin
  • chindroitin
52. Strands of collagen or collagen helix
  • uni
  • double
  • triple stranded
  • quadruple


 53. Maintenance of bone shape
  • subendosteal resorbtion of epiphysis
  • subendothelial resorbtion of diaphysis
  • subperiosteal deposition of diaphysis
  • subperiosteal deposition of metaphysic


 54. The prinicipal source of antibodies in connective tissues are the
  • activated macrophages
  • mast cells
  • plasma cells
  • B lymphocytes


 55. Dark band in myofilament in skeletal muscle
  • A band
  • I band
  • Z band
  • H band

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